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Online Casinos in general: Payout ratio at 95%

Topic created on 08th Sep. 2018 | Page: 1 of 1 | Answers: 4 | Views: 1,817
Anonym
That with a million players not one gets the AQ but several I have understood.Now my question.
Who decides whether person x or y gets what and in what time.the program must have been written.sits somewhere "small Robbi" and says so player No 42000 gets 30% 10000 10% or how.
That I do not always at 1000 Deposit
95% is already clear to me.
At Gamble Joe I read something about AQ.95% that 96% that.If there is somewhere where I can read the exact would be nice.The Variance I have read answered but not my question.
About an answer I would be happy

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Stromberg
Legend
I think you can think of it like this:
All players access a software program, the game.
This throws out a random result on each spin within a certain range, say from 0.2x bet to 5000x bet.
The game is programmed so that in the long run, with millions of spins made by all players together, the 95% AQ is reached.
Now which player wins and which loses should depend on chance, and is not decided by anyone.

To prevent the always same discussion: that's how it should be in theory, and no of course I can't judge whether the casinos are not colluding with the game manufacturers...;-)



https://www.gamblejoe.com/forum/online-casinos/allgemeines/wird-man-als-neuer-spieler-bevorzugt-34582/2/

Daniel has put a lot of links to the topic there...

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Anonym
That me please no one misunderstands.I have no one want to insinuate anything.I just want to understand.If I understand them correctly means.I have a container with dice.On each dice is a number,let's say from 1 euro to 10 million.I reach every minute purely pay for it 1 euro and can get as the highest profit 10 million.I do this now 1 year have as the highest profit 100000 euros

person 2 does that 1 time and gets the 10 million.That was now only theory.I'm just the desire to gamble gone

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Anonym
Manfrede4 wrote on 08.09.2018 at 14:24: That me please no one misunderstands.I have no one want to insinuate anything.I just verstehn.If I understand them correctly means that.I have a container with dice.On each dice is a number, say from 1 euro to 10 million.I reach in every minute pay for it 1 euro and can get as the highest profit 10 million.I do this now 1 year have as the highest profit 100000 euros

person 2 does that 1 time and gets the 10 million.That was now only theory.I'm just the desire to gamble gone

No.

To put it simply:

There is a Pot in which you reingreifst and pay each time 1 euro for it.

In this pot there are 10 lots.
5 of them are a loser, with 1 you get 50 cents, with 3 you get 2 euros and with one you get 3 euros.

Now you draw a lot and throw it back into the pot.
So there are always 10 tickets in it.

It is completely irrelevant for you how often another player draws the 3 Euro
Maybe another player draws the 3 Euro 10 times in a row. Then he has made plus.
Maybe you are unlucky and draw the loser 10 times in a row.
Although you both played with the same probabilities, your result is still different in the end
In the long run, however, the casino makes plus because in the pot is only a total value of 9.50, but the tickets together would cost 10 euros. This is then the bank advantage.
However, the previous event is independent of the next.
The tickets have no memory, so to speak.
The casino only makes a win because different players reach into the pot millions of times, and in the long run the majority of players lose 50 cents per 10 games.
It can be that one player is heavily in the plus, another is heavily in the minus and another is perhaps exactly balanced
So far understandable?

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MisterL
Expert
95% AQ means that you lose 5% per spin

This post has been translated automatically

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